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Posts by wadesworld

 I would think the answer is "it depends."  If someone feels you are intentionally allowing the grass to be pressed down by your club in order to use that as alignment aid during your swing, they could claim it as a violation.  Or as stated, depending on the distance behind the ball you are laying the club, they could claim you are improving your lie.  But similarly, if one takes a practice swing parallel to their ball, one could claim they are using the divot as an...
 I don't think you're alone in this experience.  It is not uncommon to find courses that make up local rules out of sheer ignorance, and it's also common for them to become defensive should you question them about it, since you're essentially telling those who consider themselves "the experts" that they don't know what they're talking about.  You're right and they're wrong, but often the only way to get them to fix it is a heated debate and being labeled a "rules lawyer"...
 I see your point and that does make sense.  Hopefully we'll get additional confirmation.
There is no hard-and-fast rule for this, but Decision 1-4/12 provides guidance.   My opinion would be scenario 2 under that decision is what applies here.  A single act resulted in multiple rules being breached, so a single penalty would apply; the more severe penalty of stroke and distance for the lost ball.   I'm sure Rulesman or Foutputt will correct me if I'm mistaken.
 I stand corrected.  Thanks for the pointer.  This is why I love discussing things in this forum - to clear up erroneous assumptions which may have been made. So, Steve Stricker was right, I was wrong, and he still played an incredible shot. :)
 Correct.  Once the original ball was found, the provisional was no longer an option. The "debate" was over my apparently incorrect understanding that the embedded ball drop would remove his stroke-and-distance option for the unplayable.  Well, not remove it, but make it not a valid choice, since I thought it would be in the same spot as the drop.   However, what DavidInFL pointed out does make sense.  If you are entitled to free-relief, that does not change the spot from...
I believe the PGA tour, and most tours, have a local rule allowing relief for an embedded ball through the green, except in sand (i.e. the Tiger Dubai incident).
 I believe that's incorrect.  This is my point.  When he took the free relief from the embedded ball, that took away the option of going back to the tee for his unplayable.  Why?  Because the "spot last played" was now the spot where he dropped the ball.  If you didn't see it, it's hard to describe how nasty the stuff was in which he was dropping.  There was no guarantee he was going to be able to advance it at all. I'm not saying it's a definite he would have done it...
I'm sure most of you saw it, but Steve Stricker made what I believe to have been a mistake, and provided a good lesson on being aware of the rules during the John Deere classic.   It was a drivable par 4, and he lost his tee shot way to the right in some knee-high fescue.  He did hit a provisional, but after the ball was found, the rules official determined the ball was embedded and he was entitled to relief.     When he took the embedded ball relief, he dropped the...
 As Fourputt says, the answer is no, you don't have to stand left-handed. However, there's a good video on the USGA site that clearly illustrates the difference between illegally taking your stance, and fairly taking your stance.  See: http://www.usga.org/rulestrainers.aspx in "Play the course as you find it, part 2" in the section, "Permitted Actions" You'll see a right-handed player slide along a branch to bend it behind him and prevent it from interfering with his...
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