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Poker Putts

Poll Results: Does dealing Poker Putt cards to 2 players at a time instead of 1 change the odds of either player getting a good hand?

 
  • 0% (0)
    Yes
  • 100% (1)
    No
1 Total Vote  
post #1 of 9
Thread Starter 

A few weeks ago we played "Poker Putts" in our Men's League- 1 card was earned for each 2 putt and 2 cards were earned for each 1 putt.  Cards were then used to make the best 5 card poker hand (a RF was the winner with SFs taking 2nd and 3rd).

 

Most players earned 20-27 cards and they were distributed to players one at a time by shuffling a 52 card deck and giving them the top X cards.  I said, that to save time, they could give two players cards from the same deck (either every other or first X to player 1, then Y to player 2),  as long as the two players combined didn't earn more than 52 cards.  All the guys present thought that doing 2 at a time would somehow change the odds of a player getting a good hand.   

 

What do you think?  Assume the deck is well shuffled after each deal (regardless of whether it is to 1 or 2 players). 

post #2 of 9
How about you just save us the time and tell us how this thread relates to the other threads and prove that youre the math whiz you have said you are?
post #3 of 9
Quote:
Originally Posted by Phil McGleno View Post

How about you just save us the time and tell us how this thread relates to the other threads and prove that youre the math whiz you have said you are?

I have to agree with this.  Instead of us telling you what we think, it would save everybody a lot of time if we just skip to the part where you give us the answer.

post #4 of 9
Quote:
Originally Posted by Golfingdad View Post
 

I have to agree with this.  Instead of us telling you what we think, it would save everybody a lot of time if we just skip to the part where you give us the answer.

 

 

lolol... disarmed

post #5 of 9

I don't get it, how does this relate to lateral water hazards? Are the cards in the hazard or just lost in the rough?

post #6 of 9
Quote:
Originally Posted by MEfree View Post
 

A few weeks ago we played "Poker Putts" in our Men's League- 1 card was earned for each 2 putt and 2 cards were earned for each 1 putt.  Cards were then used to make the best 5 card poker hand (a RF was the winner with SFs taking 2nd and 3rd).

 

Most players earned 20-27 cards and they were distributed to players one at a time by shuffling a 52 card deck and giving them the top X cards.  I said, that to save time, they could give two players cards from the same deck (either every other or first X to player 1, then Y to player 2),  as long as the two players combined didn't earn more than 52 cards.  All the guys present thought that doing 2 at a time would somehow change the odds of a player getting a good hand.   

 

What do you think?  Assume the deck is well shuffled after each deal (regardless of whether it is to 1 or 2 players). 

Just for giggles I went ahead and answered the question with yes it does reduce chances for each player to get the best hand possible. No reason to go into details why, because if you don't understand why on your own it's a lost cause.

post #7 of 9

Still waiting for @MEfree to make the grand reveal!

 

The suspense is unbearable.

post #8 of 9
Thread Starter 
Quote:
Originally Posted by MEfree View Post
 

  I said, that to save time, they could give two players cards from the same deck (either every other or first X to player 1, then Y to player 2),  as long as the two players combined didn't earn more than 52 cards.  

The reason I said that is that as long as no more than 52 cards are needed, then the odds don't change if you are dealing to 1 or 2 players.  

 

Think of it this way.  Say you are playing 7 card stud (or any poker game)- the odds of you getting dealt a Royal Flush, 4 of Kind, etc, don't change regardless of how many players are at the table- you are still getting 7 (or whatever the # is) out of 52 cards with each random group of 7 cards having the same chances as any other random group 7 of cards.

post #9 of 9
Quote:
Originally Posted by MEfree View Post
 

The reason I said that is that as long as no more than 52 cards are needed, then the odds don't change if you are dealing to 1 or 2 players.  

 

Think of it this way.  Say you are playing 7 card stud (or any poker game)- the odds of you getting dealt a Royal Flush, 4 of Kind, etc, don't change regardless of how many players are at the table- you are still getting 7 (or whatever the # is) out of 52 cards with each random group of 7 cards having the same chances as any other random group 7 of cards.

it is nice that you found someone to talk to about this.

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