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Posted

I would say that males are more sexual active, or might seek to have sex more often than females.  

Well, in Western countries the population is about 50/50 men/women. So on average it's not possible that one group is more active than the other, unless they have more sex with people from the same group. That's just math :-)  Or does, euhm, 'online activity' and 'shower time' also count as being sexual active?

 

What I can image, and I have no idea if that's actually true, is that there's a bigger group of males who will be virgin for the rest of their lives, and therefor the men who actually do have sex, have it more than the average female. That doesn't change the average of the complete group though.  

~Jorrit

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Posted

Well, in Western countries the population is about 50/50 men/women. So on average it's not possible that one group is more active than the other, unless they have more sex with people from the same group. That's just math :-)  Or does, euhm, 'online activity' and 'shower time' also count as being sexual active?

No, because not all 100% of the population might be sexually active. Lets say you have 10 men and 10 woman. If you 1 woman is having sex with 5 guys. I can say 10% of woman are sexually active and 50% of men are sexually active when there is a 50/50 split in the population. Yes it is possible because one person isn't just having sex with the same person and they are not limited to having sex just once. 



 

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Posted

No, because not all 100% of the population might be sexually active. Lets say you have 10 men and 10 woman. If you 1 woman is having sex with 5 guys. I can say 10% of woman are sexually active and 50% of men are sexually active when there is a 50/50 split in the population. Yes it is possible because one person isn't just having sex with the same person and they are not limited to having sex just once. 
 

Yea, that's kind of what I said in the part you didn't quote but with a different example. On the total population of men and women, the total group had as much sex as the other group; that's what I meant.

~Jorrit

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Posted (edited)

A lot of historians have evidence that commoners through out history practiced Monogamy, while the elites practiced Polygamy. So it wasn't really a cultural thing more than a wealth issue.

In your terms, it isn't a more natural form of married life. It's might have been just a trend with the affluent people through out history. 

Also, more and more women are able to take care of themselves over in the past. This decreases the need for them to find a wealthy male partner to latch onto as a mistress. 

I don't see Polygamy as a natural form of married life. I see it as a choice driven by economical and social standing which has been driven out by western civilization. 
 

I would say that males are more sexual active, or might seek to have sex more often than females.  

 

My point was more to how human race evolved up until monogamy culture/law started to get enforced.   Strong & powerful males throughout human development/history took multiple partners at the expense of lesser ones.  You see this in other species as very few are monogamous.   I am saying human race was no different until monogamy was developed and became law/culture.   Even that isn't true for many countries now where polygamy is allowed, including US (albeit not legal, re Mormons).

Edited by rkim291968

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