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I completely agree with the notion that rust doesn't increase spin- it makes perfect sense if you think about it.

http://images.google.com/imgres?imgu...3Doff%26sa%3DN

I found this though, and I'm a bit confused. It's from golf.com so I would like to think it's from a reputable source, but the argument does go against logic.

Can anyone explain why the test found these results?

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Can anyone explain why the test found these results?

Since it's highly, highly unlikely the rust would be on the clubface, I think it's easy: on an older wedge the grooves get worn down, and from a clean lie in the fairway, a club with worn grooves can spin the ball more than a club with deeper grooves.

Grooves mostly help with channeling away debris. If there's no debris, flatter faces work better. But when is that ever the case? Only under a silly test like this. Like tread on a tire and racing slicks. The slicks are great... until it's wet. Don't let their colorful charts fool you - those results aren't exactly scientific in their presentation. P.S. And even if you could somehow get rust on the clubface and it did increase spin (it doesn't), it'd wear off after a shot or two, and then you'd simply have a club that behaves unpredictably. Who'd want that?

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