Golf Gambling Odds Question

[Zippo]

I don't gamble - other than the occasional beverage(s) at the end of the round. Back in the day, when I did a little bit of greyhound or horse betting (which cured me of gambling) I would see the odds written as "3 to 1" or "5 to 2" which, of course, meant that if you won you'd get 3 dollars for every 1 you bet or 5 dollars for every 2 you bet, and so on. Now, on TV, I've seen golf player odds written as "+3,000" or "-8000". Can someone explain to me how that translates to dollars, please? Just curious.

[saevel25]

4 minutes ago, Zippo said:

I don't gamble - other than the occasional beverage(s) at the end of the round. Back in the day, when I did a little bit of greyhound or horse betting (which cured me of gambling) I would see the odds written as "3 to 1" or "5 to 2" which, of course, meant that if you won you'd get 3 dollars for every 1 you bet or 5 dollars for every 2 you bet, and so on. Now, on TV, I've seen golf player odds written as "+3,000" or "-8000". Can someone explain to me how that translates to dollars, please? Just curious.

Here is an example, 

Quote

In this example, Mayweather is the favorite at -800, which essentially means he's an 8-1 favorite. Just remember this: a minus-sign means you have to bet that amount to win $100. A plus-sign means that you win that amount if you bet $100. For Mayweather at -800, you have to wager $800 for every $100 you have to win.

If it's +3000, I would assume if you bet 100 you would get 3000. You would get you 100 back +3000.

If it's -8000, I would assume if you bet 8000 you would win 100. You would get your 8000 back +100. 

 

[Zippo]

11 hours ago, saevel25 said:

Here is an example, 

If it's +3000, I would assume if you bet 100 you would get 3000. You would get you 100 back +3000.

If it's -8000, I would assume if you bet 8000 you would win 100. You would get your 8000 back +100. 

 

Thanks, @saevel25. I think I like the old way better but I'm sure there's some good reason for the change.