Personal Liability Insurance

[follyforhire]

Thanks, Big Don.

The fact that somebody was injured is not by itself necessarily grounds for compensation. Additionally the law does not require individuals to be infallible. A miss-hit shot is not an act of negligence; it was accidental and any injuries resulting were not foreseeable. Everybody stepping on to a golf course assumes the risk that they may be hit by a ball that is miss-hit; that's just golf and nobody should expect to compensated in such circumstances.

Does the same reasoning or legal argument apply if the injured party (or damaged property) was not on the golf course? If a road runs alongside (and rather close) to a fairway or, as is more often the case in the U.S., behind a green, has the injured party (or owner of the damaged property) assumed the same risk?